Certain intransitive verbs that take prepositional phrases to express location or motion toward will take where without a preposition as a corresponding object in relative or interrogative clauses. For example (I'm using CGEL's convention of using A and B as speaker tags):
A: Where did Mary take her brother? B: She took him to New York.
Here, ?Where did Mary take her brother to? seems grammatical, but a bit awkward.
A: Where is John standing? B: He's standing beside Platform 4, where the trains to Glasgow stop.
Here, *Where is John standing beside? seems ungrammatical. Although the independent-clause counterpart of Platform 4, where the trains to Glasgow stop is The trains to Glasgow stop at Platform 4, the relative clause #where the trains to Glasgow stop at is nonstandard, and *at where the trains to Glasgow stop simply ungrammatical; one would have to change the pronoun and say at which the trains stop or which the trains stop at. Similar phenomena exist with here and there:
A: Has Jamal flown to California? B: Yes, he flew there yesterday (not the marginally grammatical ?to there).
A: Is Jamal in Los Angeles now? B: Yes, he is there. (Not in there, which is restricted to use to things more container-like than cities, such as A: Is Jamal in that room? B: Yes, he's in there.)
This seems restricted semantically to location and motion toward, not motion from: Where did Mary go? demands the response She went to New York, not the syntactically identical She went from London. Examples like A: Where did Mary leave? B: She left London aren't quite ungrammatical, but they are irrelevant, because leave, unlike go, fly, or take someone to, takes a location as a proper direct object. (In any case, I'd expect A's question to elicit responses about motion through, such as She left via the front door.)
My question is this: Does this phenomenon have a standard name or a generally accepted analysis? In particular, are where, here, and there in the above examples better understood as adverbs, more akin to how, rather than as the objects of otherwise intransitive verbs? And is there a more precise explanation than mine of the semantic restrictions on the prepositional phrases that where can replace?