My answer is 'All people have roughly the same scores in math and physics, respectively.'. However, it will make me regard that the math and physics scores of people A are the same, which happens for all the other people.

closed as off-topic by aparente001, jimm101, Dan Bron, Cascabel, Hellion Feb 24 '17 at 18:13

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    Do you mean that every person has a score close to the average in both maths and physics, or perhaps that every person has roughly the same score in both maths and physics (but not necessarily the same scores as everyone else)? – MorganFR Feb 23 '17 at 15:49
  • Please me more specific with exactly what you are trying to say. As it stands now, we do not know. – Hank Feb 23 '17 at 15:53
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    All of the math scores were [very close] [tightly grouped] and [so were] [likewise for] the physics scores. – Jim Feb 23 '17 at 15:56
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    Jim has it. Also, I would not use the word respectively unless you show that A pairs with A, and B with B. I see you do not want to say that math scores have any relation to physics scores. So All people have roughly the same scores in math, and so with physics = Math scores are very close. Also, physics scores are very close. – Yosef Baskin Feb 23 '17 at 16:20
  • Discard 'respectively', and what you want is ready now! – mahmud koya Feb 23 '17 at 17:09

"All people score roughly the same in math, and in physics as well".

Or, to keep your structure:

"The math scores of all people are roughly the same, and the same goes for their physics scores", or "the same is true in/for physics"


I'm fairly sure I know which of the two situations is in play from the wording of the title. The idea here is to describe score distributions. You can use the verb distributed, but is probably more familiar to the layman to use a distribution.

The math and physics scores each had a tight distribution.

The math and physics scores (were) each distributed narrowly.

You can also use range to get the idea across if you are more concerned about the bounds of the scores rather than the shape of the distribution.

The math and physics scores each fell in a narrow range.

Removing the people from the sentence eliminates the problem of associating one score of each type to each person.

You can also define the sets.

Both set of scores had a narrow range.

The above only makes sense one way.

Each set of scores for math and physics had a narrow range.


In both math and physics, everyone scored roughly the same. (NOTE: in your original question, as well as in my suggestion, it's not clear whether this means that the same people all had scores in both math and physics, and each person ended up with a similar score in each subject, OR all the math scores--and also the physics scores--were similar to each other.

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    This doesn't answer the question as it merely rephrases the sentence, which keeps the exact same ambiguity the OP was trying to remove, being the whole point of the question.As it stands, we do not know for sure which is the actual meaning, without more information. – MorganFR Feb 23 '17 at 16:28
  • As I noted in my answer, the question itself is unclear. I reworded it to a more concise form (which was what had been requested) while asking for clarification. If a clarification comes my way, I will try again. – MVS Feb 24 '17 at 18:13

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