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She has no use of the book I gave her.

She has no use for the book I gave her.

Which one is grammatically correct and why?

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Both are grammatically correct, but they mean slightly different things.

Use of is an old-fashioned phrase that means, simply, the same as use. So,

She has no use of the book

means the same as

She does not use the book. (Note that we are not told why.)

To have use of usually means that the object being used is owned by someone else. For example, While I visited my uncle on the farm I had use of his car.


The phrase use for means the same as need. So,

She has no use for the book

means the same as

She does not need the book.

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