There is a tense (can't remember its name) where in the future, something was done. The form is "< time-in-the-future >, the < noun > will have < verb >-ed".

My question is this: might < noun > have already < verb >-ed at the time of speaking?

I would usually use this form if it will < verb > sometime before < time-in-the-future >, but I think it could be used the aforementioned way.

As a sample sentence: "tomorrow, the probe will have passed Jupiter." could it have passed yesterday?

  • Why don't you give us a sample sentence? – Centaurus Jan 21 '17 at 14:35
  • @Centaurus added one. – Mark Gardner Jan 21 '17 at 15:06
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    I would say it can; to give a related sample sentence, "The probe will have passed Jupiter by now." – Hellion Jan 21 '17 at 15:14
  • I don't think so. It would be an odd and confusing usage; e.g., *"Six weeks from now, Trump will have become President of the United States." See how that is misleading? – Mark Hubbard Jan 21 '17 at 16:45
  • @MarkHubbard: No; it is not misleading - although nearly anything can mislead some people some of the time. It simply means that six weeks from now it will be true that Trump is the President AND that at some time before that he was not President. It does not imply that he is not President when the sentence is spoken. – Drew Jan 21 '17 at 16:58

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