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I'm aware of the meanings of these expression. I'm just wondering if there is any relation between the two. I've looked into many dictionaries but haven't understood much about their similarities,if any.

  1. Does these expressions share a history of common origin.
  2. Whether the latter is derived from the former considering their origin according to this site.
  3. If these are completely independent expressions, then how come they are named almost the same. Is the hyphenated form going to twist the whole meaning?

I don't suppose we can use 'as a matter of fact' in place of 'matter-of-fact', right?

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    The difference seems to be usage: "matter of fact" is a noun phrase, and "matter-of-fact" is the adjectival use of that noun phrase to modify another noun or noun phrase. As might be expected, the noun phrase is found earlier (by more than a century, 1583) than the adjective derived from it (1712). – JEL Dec 13 '16 at 8:39
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    Use them as follows: If I argue with you and say "You have your facts wrong," I can start off my sentence with "As a matter of fact." If I speak to you casually, although the subject is serious, you could say my matter-of fact manner was hiding my true intent. – Yosef Baskin Feb 1 '17 at 20:27

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