I'm aware of the meanings of these expression. I'm just wondering if there is any relation between the two. I've looked into many dictionaries but haven't understood much about their similarities,if any.
- Does these expressions share a history of common origin.
- Whether the latter is derived from the former considering their origin according to this site.
- If these are completely independent expressions, then how come they are named almost the same. Is the hyphenated form going to twist the whole meaning?
I don't suppose we can use 'as a matter of fact' in place of 'matter-of-fact', right?