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Even after reviewing other "either/or" questions in relation to a negative preceding them, the negatives themselves being almost exclusively verbs, I am still a bit conflicted about the following statement:

"It is accepted by both parties that there is no question of Charlesco’s email of 29 October constituting either (a) a breach of contract, or (b) duress by Charlesco."

Would the "no question of" act as a negative, making (a)the breach and (b)duress both an impossibility, or does it mean that it is impossible for just (a), or (b) alone to exist?

Is it just a sentence so ambiguous that there is no clear way of interpreting it?

Thanks to anyone for their time...

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    Neither. There is no question of here means it surely is the case that. (Disclaimer: this is not legal advice.) – Lawrence Nov 23 '16 at 15:37
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"It is accepted by both parties that there is no question of Charlesco’s email of 29 October constituting either (a) a breach of contract, or (b) duress by Charlesco."

This means:

Both sides have accepted the following observation: The email does not constitute a breach of contract; and the email does not constitute duress.

  • Absolutely. If either party thought that the email might have constituted breach of contract there would have been some question of the email constituting breach of contract. The same thing would apply to duress. The fact that both parties accept that there is no question that it constitutes either one or the other means that neither party is claiming breach of contract and neither party is claiming duress (as far as this email is concerned anyway). – BoldBen Jan 23 '17 at 7:59

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