Even after reviewing other "either/or" questions in relation to a negative preceding them, the negatives themselves being almost exclusively verbs, I am still a bit conflicted about the following statement:
"It is accepted by both parties that there is no question of Charlesco’s email of 29 October constituting either (a) a breach of contract, or (b) duress by Charlesco."
Would the "no question of" act as a negative, making (a)the breach and (b)duress both an impossibility, or does it mean that it is impossible for just (a), or (b) alone to exist?
Is it just a sentence so ambiguous that there is no clear way of interpreting it?
Thanks to anyone for their time...