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This is from a famous passage from an ancient work:

And so none of them can hurt me. No one can implicate me in ugliness.

What does "implicate" mean in this context? My guess is that the various translators (ancient Greek to English) want to convey from the author that the ugliness is a crime figuratively and phrased it implicitly to preserve the wit. But I think I am mind reading to get this explanation.

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    My gut feeling is that the author intended "No one can INVOLVE me in ugliness"; I'm in agreement with your assessment of the usage of the word "ugliness". Also, I don't think you are mind-reading. Sometimes one has to look beyond the face value to get to the true meaning...
    – Anonymous
    Commented Nov 16, 2016 at 12:36

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According to the Online Etymology Dictionary, the word "implicate" is derived from the Latin word "implicare", meaning "to involve, entwine, entangle, embrace". So the line could most likely be translated as "no one can entangle me in ugliness".

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