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1) Jones is the latest player to have signed with Barcelona.

2) Jones is the latest player having signed with Barcelona.

I am confused with those sentences. Are both sentences correct? Is there any difference if both are correct?

I am giving one more example -

3) Marie curie is the only person to have won a Nobel prize in two different disciplines.

4) Marie curie is the only person having won a Nobel prize in two different disciplines.

  • The first with, "to have signed with Barcelona," is an adjective infinitive phrase modifying "player" and answers, like an adjective, "Which one?" Which team? The one in Barcelona. The other sentence uses a present participle phrase (which also acts like an adjective) "having signed with Barcelona" to modify "player" and it means simply that he's the latest among others to sign with Barcelona. – Arch Denton Sep 14 '16 at 2:39
  • @Arch Denton That means no 2 and 4 aren't incorrect. They just have different meanings? – dz420 Sep 14 '16 at 10:32
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To me your examples 2 and 4 sound just wrong, whereas 1 and 3 sound perfectly normal.

The 'having won' construction works when it's justifying an assertion so you could construct a sentence along the lines of: 'Jones is one a long list of players to move from Wales to Spain, having signed with Barcelona'.

In that sentence there is an assertion or statement of fact and then it is explained or further illuminated using the 'having'.

And perhaps another example: "In the scientific field is is almost impossible to excel in more than one field. Marie Curie is the only person, having won a Nobel prize in two different disciplines."

Again the comma precedes the 'having' clause, which becomes explanatory.

But those examples were not the intention (I presume) of the items in 2 and 4.

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