I am not a native English speaker, but I've been studying English for a couple of decades now... And recently I decided to read "For Whom the Bell Tolls". I know that in this book Hemingway writes in a different way, trying to mimic Spanish grammar in English. But in Chapter 19, one Spanish character (Pablo) says:
"But I believe that the Pilar can divine events (...)"
So Hemingway used the definite article before someone's name. But as far as I know this is not how one would speak in Spanish: "Pero yo creo que Pilar puede adivinar (...)". There is no definite article there, and it doesn't seem to be something that one would do in English either. It only sounds natural to me in Portuguese: "Creio que a Pilar pode adivinhar (...)" -- the "a" before Pilar is the definite article in Portuguese. And even in Portuguese, it would be perfectly normal to ommit the article.
So, what is it that I did not get? Is it acceptable to use "the" before someone's name in English? (I have never seen that before)