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Both sentences in the following pairs are correct, but there is a difference in the meanings which I'm not quite certain to grasp. My guess is that in the first sentence the clause after since signifies a moment in the past, while in the second one a period of time up to now is meant.
Would somebody be willing to help me?

I've known her since we were at school together. I've known her since I've lived in this street.

We visit my parents every week since we bought the car. We visit my parents every week since we've had the car.

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    @cobaltduck No. It's standard British English. Jul 27, 2016 at 20:26
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    When I hear “lived in this street” I think: “homeless guy with a box.”
    – Jim
    Jul 27, 2016 at 22:23
  • This all depends on your usage of “since”. Do you mean “because I’ve lived on this street I’ve known her. Or do you mean “starting from the time that I lived on this street.
    – Jim
    Jul 27, 2016 at 22:27
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    @Jim And when I hear "lived on this street", I think of a homeless guy with a box: British & American usage are different!
    – TrevorD
    Jul 27, 2016 at 22:52
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    AmE: "I've known her since I moved to this street", "I've known her ever since I've been liv ing on this street" "I've known her ever since I've lived on this street"
    – Mitch
    Jul 27, 2016 at 23:26

1 Answer 1

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Since should be used when we denote a given point of time in the past. '... since we were at school...' is okay.

'I have lived' does not refer to any given point of time in the past. 'Since I started to live' would refer to a specific beginning.

On the same lines, saying 'since we bought the car' is okay; 'since we have had the car' is not correct.

See https://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-m_for-since.htm if necessary.

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    Why is "'since we have had the car' is not correct."? (I think it's fine.) You need to explain your answers - not just make claims about was is & is not correct without any explanation.
    – TrevorD
    Jul 27, 2016 at 22:52
  • Both "since we were at school together" and "since I've lived in this street" have a specific starting point in time (when he/they started school; when he moved into that street). Why say that it has to be "Since I started to live in this street", but not "Since we started at school together" - how it one different from the other?
    – TrevorD
    Jul 27, 2016 at 22:58
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    @TrevorD Yes, the rule is bogus. Or rather, it's not bogus to say that since requires the listener to be able to extrapolate a point (or period) in time that is in the past; but the dependent clause that since heads doesn't have to be in the past tense—it can be present perfect as well, or even plain present (cue Axl Rose screa--singing “I don't have anything // Since I don't have you”). Jul 27, 2016 at 23:17
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    @MvLog No, in the song quoted, it means “ever since I don't have you”. Jul 28, 2016 at 5:47
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    @MvLog No, it's not ungrammatical. It's perfectly fine and it is used in normal speech by native speakers, especially in AmE. Swan’s ‘rule’ is simplified and bogus (as is so often the case with grammar and usage books for non-native speakers). What is ungrammatical is “there is no such a meaning” and “it's OK… but rather be”. Jul 28, 2016 at 5:58

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