If you are acquainted with Islamic Sharia (law), you may have come across the term "iddah" (the period a woman must observe after the death of her spouse or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man).
It's often translated as: "legally prescribed waiting period", but I lately heard a professor translating it "period of continence"; continence meaning "self-restraining from intercourse". However, the "iddah" is not only about intercourse. It also includes that the divorced/widowed woman is not allowed to leave the house. Also, it's mandatory that she does not have intercourse, it's not her choice. Does that make the phrase inapplicable?
I have done some research and found that the phrase was never used in any Islamic context. I know that the translation "legally prescribed waiting period" does not show what iddah entails but does it have to?