0

The King James Bible interchangeably uses 'spake/spoke', 'sware/swore' and 'bare/bore' for the simple past tenses of 'speak', 'swear', and 'bear', respectively.

Were their interchangeability an innovation of Early Modern English with nuanced distinction in the periods therebefore or had they always been alternatives for the same things? How did the King James scholars decide which form should be used for which context?

  • Site examples. I just did a Boolean search of the entire King James Bible and the word "spoke" doesn't appear even one time. It only uses "spake" for the preterit. As for "bare" and "bore," they are different tenses, so of course they would both appear. You don't say what your question is about "swear." – Benjamin Harman Jul 20 '16 at 3:09
  • Do remember that at this time there was basically no definitely correct spelling of anything. To give an example, around this time there were three different plurals if egg; eggs, egg and eggie. Don't expect an awful lot of consistency. – BladorthinTheGrey Jul 20 '16 at 9:42
1

Every dictionary I'm looking at here says "spake" is simply an (archaic) past tense of "speak." Variations happen. They used to happen more than now, especially in spelling.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.