I want to ask you a question about the correct usage of "be gone" in the following sentence. I don't understand which sentence is correct and why, especially the grammar.

But I'm already gone far away


But I'm already far away

Hopefully, anyone can help me to understand why using "I am gone far away" is correct or wrong.

  • The be-perfect is archaic or poetic nowadays. 'But I'm already gone, far away.' might be permissible in a period drama. 'But I'm already far away.' sounds idiomatic. – Edwin Ashworth Jul 9 '16 at 17:45
  • 1
    Same meaning and both grammatically okay, though the first one is less likely. They both use expressions that are a complement of be: the first is an adjective phrase with "gone" meaning that you are in the state resulting from having gone or departed, and the second a locative complement. Both assert that you are currently in some far away place. – user164312 Jul 9 '16 at 18:04
  • Ah, I see. Because I'm writing a song. That's why it makes me doubt whether one of these sentences is correct or wrong. I want to make it a bit more dramatic. Which sentence should I write? – J. van Kelroodt Jul 9 '16 at 18:54
  • The first is more dramatic. – ab2 ReinstateMonicaNow Jul 9 '16 at 21:27
  • "I am gone far away" isn't incorrect, it's just archaic. In places like the Bible, you see "to be" used with a participle in this way (e.g., "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets..." - Matthew 5:17). Today, though, we either say, "I'm already far away," or, "I've already gone far away." The verb "to have" replaces the verb "to be" in these constructions. – Benjamin Harman Jul 9 '16 at 21:44

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