"I'd the house to myself."
Since "I'd" can be a contraction of I had, would it work in this case for "I had the house to myself?"
English Language & Usage Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts. It only takes a minute to sign up.Sign up to join this community
It seems incorrect to me.
While "I'd" seems to be a contraction for "I had", it's really only valid when "had" is part of a past perfect construction:
I'd gone to bed.
I'd given him the book.
I'd seen enough.
It does not seem appropriate to me as a general contraction for "I had" in any other case.
For more information, see Past Perfect — The English Club (scroll down to "Contraction with Past Perfect").