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In modern (or American) ENglish, we simplified spellings of many words, such as plough, mould, neighbour, and many many more. Why don't we do same thing for word "champagne"?

closed as primarily opinion-based by Mari-Lou A, NVZ, MetaEd, sumelic, Phil Sweet Jul 15 '16 at 19:37

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    Well, the "simplified" spelling would not be "champen" -- it would be something closer to "champain". But the "foreign" spelling is part of the mystique of the beverage, so the name's never going to change. – Hot Licks Jul 2 '16 at 12:27
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    The issue of semplifing the spelling of English terms is an old and controversial one: English-language spelling reform - For centuries there has been a movement to reform the spelling of English. It seeks to change English spelling so that it is more consistent, matches pronunciation better, and follows the alphabetic principle. en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/English-language_spelling_reform – user66974 Jul 2 '16 at 12:40
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    @Rathony - the "semplificatin" of geographic terms is actually the more common one...Roma is Rome, Milano is Milan...just to name a few. – user66974 Jul 2 '16 at 13:22
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    Anglicizing and simplifying aren't the same thing. – Steven Littman Jul 2 '16 at 14:21
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    No one would pay $500 for a bottle of champen. – ab2 Jul 2 '16 at 15:09
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Because Champagne is the name of the region in France where the sparkling wine comes from. You don't just change the names of people or places without their consent.

In most cases Champagne the drink must come from Champagne the place to be called that. In those places where this is not the case, nobody will put 'champen' on their bottles as it would be a very easy way to tell the knock-off from the original.

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