I recently got corrected on another community on this platform. I wrote: "An email I had wrote to her", and it was courteously changed to "I had written to her" which still makes sense, however, I want to ask if the former is not grammatically correct and if these are simply two phrases that mean different things.
Question Is "An email I had wrote to her" ever correct English? Is it bad English totally or there are instances it may be used.
I'm thinking it would be valid when I refer to the time in the past, where the action was already past tense.
English is not my mother tongue, but I'm not necessarily learning English anew, so I wasn't sure whether to post in the other English community.