2

From what I know, in Simple Present, all verbs are followed by -s/es if the subject is a third-singular person. Such as makes, matches, buys, and studies.

I also know that if the verb is have, it becomes has if the subject is a third-singular person. And I'm wondering why it doesn't simply become haves, just like other verbs.

She has a book.

Why not: She haves a book.

So, my question is, what is the origin of the use of the verb has? I'm guessing euphony has something to do with it, but I need to support my guess.

  • 1
    It may have something to do with the older conjugations "I have", "you hast", "he hath", "they have". – GoldenGremlin Jun 22 '16 at 3:40
  • 2
    Seems like the "-th" ending was supplanted by "-s" . Here's a relevant passage: "There is some evidence that verbs written with this [-th] ending in Early Modern English were pronounced as if they ended in -s, which was common in speech before becoming common in writing" (en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/-eth). This would mean "hath" shifts to "has". – GoldenGremlin Jun 22 '16 at 3:45
  • 1
    @Silenus - you should write your comment up as an answer. :-) – Chappo Jun 22 '16 at 7:59
  • @Silenus, I agree with Chappo. You should write your comment up as an answer. Thank you. – Safira Jun 26 '16 at 4:02
0

As demanded in the comments, Silenius comment as answer:

Seems like the "-th" ending was supplanted by "-s" . Here's a relevant passage: "There is some evidence that verbs written with this [-th] ending in Early Modern English were pronounced as if they ended in -s, which was common in speech before becoming common in writing" [en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/-eth]. This would mean "hath" shifts to "has". – Silenus

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.