"Here it is." What's going on with this? If I say "It is here", 'here' is plainly a PA. If I say "Here I am", 'I' is plainly the subject. (Because if it was the object, we would have to say "Here is me". Or don't linking verbs put the predicate in the objective case?) So is 'here' a PA that has moved to the start of the sentence, or is it an adverb, simply because it has moved? And can the verb 'to be' even be used intransitively, outside of philosophy? "I am."
What about "Here is the list" ? 'Here' can be a noun, as in "Here is the best!" (as in, "This place is the best!") So 'here' could be the subject. But 'Here is the list' definitely doesn't translate as 'This place is the list'.
It looks to me like what we have here is subject/linking verb/predicate adjective. But aren't there rules about word order? "I am green with jealousy" --fine. "Green with jealousy am I"--yeah, okay, but only in poetry. Surely poetic word order isn't considered proper grammar. And what about "Green with jealousy I am"--this is Yoda syntax.
In subject/linking verb/PA contructions, can the PA be moved around at will? And if not, how is "Here I am" working? And how does "Here is the list" work? 'Here' would have to be a noun, and how would you define said noun in this context?
NB ABOVE is the original question. I posted the following extension as a reply, it was then deleted (because it was supposed to be done as an edit to the original question). Personally I consider editing the original question at this late stage to be inappropriate--it means all the comments already made no longer seem to address the question as now edited. But if this site insists on it, so be it. Here is the text of my extension of the question:
This is not an answer, this is an extension or refinement of the question above (too long to be a comment). Questions numbered below.
"Here is the list" BUT NOT "Here is it." "Here is Sam" BUT NOT "Here is he." We say "Here it is" and "Here he is". 1. Why do the pronouns use a different word order than the NP? 2. Are there many instances where pronouns behave differently to a NP they replace?
"There goes Sam", "There he goes". Same thing. Not sure how many verbs produce this behaviour. ("There she blows!" is fairly archaic.) And with "Here is Sam" and "There goes Sam", the verb precedes the subject. We're not talking poetic word order here, these are extremely common and heavily used constructions, not exotic obscurities. 3. Surely there is a simple, comprehensive and accepted analysis, or what have centuries of grammatical endeavour been for? Remember, when your wife is looking for her car keys and you find them first, you say "Here they are" or "Here are your keys." These usages are as neutral and fundamental as English gets.
And here is a further extension of the question:
"I am at my home." 'Home' must be a noun, to take a possessive like this.
"I am at home." 'Home' is….?
"I am home." 'Home' is…a locative complement? There are subtle differences between these sentences, but for most peoples purposes they are interchangeable. But grammatically they are different. 'Home' retains the same form, and conceptually is nearly the same. (You could also use 'home' as an adjective--'the home team'). When a word can be used as flexibly as this, surely there must be at least some psychological ambiguity and overlap in how people are using it. And 'here' and 'there' are also vague and flexible terms. Does this help to explain their syntactic behaviour?