1

Is it grammatically correct in the English language to use a definite article before a common noun to denote the type of noun?

For example - "The water is better than the wine" - as opposed to "water is better than wine"

3

Yes, it is. You are increasing the strength of your assertion if you do not include it. e.g. "Water is better than wine" implies the speaker believes there is no circumstance where you would ever choose any wine over water.

By using the definite article, "The water is better than the wine." you could be discussing, for instance, a particular restaurant with below average wine, insisting that it's better you get the water.

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