I'm reading a book, it says:

If anyone has reason to think of himself as special, it's he.

Is this correct? I think It should be It's him right? If this is still correct, what is the reason of using this kind of grammar?

closed as off-topic by Drew, user140086, TimLymington, vickyace, Dan Bron Jun 1 '16 at 18:40

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  • 2
    Both are grammatically okay, but the forms with nominative pronouns sound ridiculously stuffy today. In present-day English, the copular verb takes accusative pronoun complements. My advice would be this: If someone knocks at your door, and you say "Who's there?" and what you hear in response is "It is I", don't let them in. It's no one you want to know. – BillJ Jun 1 '16 at 7:04

An article on 'subject complement' in Wikipedia may be helpful.

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    Hi, discenter. I edited your answer to explicitly identify the subject of the Wikipedia article that you mention in your answer. But even with that addition, your answer is not much more than a link to another site. At English Language & Usage, we prefer that answers be self-contained, in the sense that they provide a coherent explanation or answer without requiring the reader to go elsewhere for the substance of the answer. Please consider summarizing, in the body of your answer, the portion of the Wikipedia article that is relevant to the poster's question. – Sven Yargs Jun 1 '16 at 16:08

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