0

It might seem trivial but I'm not really sure which one is grammatically correct.

To agree with a sentence with never we should use too or either?

A: I never drink.

B: .............

Thanks

closed as off-topic by user140086, NVZ, Nathaniel, ab2, tchrist May 27 '16 at 4:52

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • 1
    "I don't either." or "Neither do I." – ab2 May 26 '16 at 0:59
1

If someone never drinks, that means that there is never a time when they drink. So if we say "We never drink, too", that sounds like we're saying that we also "do something", and that something is "never drink". But there's nothing which is actually done - it's a lack of doing something. So, using "too" isn't right. So, it's grammatically correct (I think), but conceptually or logically wrong.

Say "I don't either." or "I don't, either." (I'm not sure if it's better with or without the comma).

  • 1
    I'd say 'me neither', which I am sure would be entirely ungrammatical, but very common. If I was trying to be 'more proper' I might say 'Neither do I'. – Spagirl May 25 '16 at 11:08
  • I think "Me neither", "I don't either", and "Neither do I" are all perfectly fine, actually. – Max Williams May 25 '16 at 11:23
  • Well, I thought that 'neither do I' was probably okay, but suspected 'me neither' of being the sort of usage which earn comments about native speakers not speaking the language properly. i don't know a great deal about grammar beyond 'how I speak'. :) – Spagirl May 25 '16 at 11:53
  • I actually don't know whether "Me neither" is grammatical or not, but it's certainly very common and accepted, perhaps as informal language. – Max Williams May 25 '16 at 11:54

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.