While reading an article from a certain newspaper this morning on grammar pet peeves, I noticed one that I had never heard of before, concerning the usage of "me" vs. "I." The examples were something like: "The pool amazed my friend and me"; and "My friend and I were amazed by the fireworks." I have never, ever heard of using "____ and me," but the writer of this article believes that when using the passive, it should be "____ and me." Is this correct?
The prescriptive use would be to drop the "my friend and" part of the phrase for a moment and use whichever pronoun fits. So:
The pool amazed ... me.
would be correct, where
The pool amazed ... I.
would not be. It's the same logic that one uses when choosing to use "and I" in the subject form.
There is, however, very strong evidence that the "and I" construction, even in the subject form, is an artificial imposition on English. Other European languages tend to use "and me" (the object form) whenever a composite subject or object is used.