In King James Bible, John 12:6 we read:
This he said, not that he cared for the poor; but because he was a thief, and had the bag, and bare what was put therein.
As said here, bare is archaic past simple form of verb "bear". But in all modern versions of this line the meaning of this phrase "and bare what was put therein" is that Judas used to pilfer what was put into it.
So the question is: what is semantics of this old form "bare" in original KJV John 12:6? Does it mean "carry" ("bare" = "carried"), or it has something similar to modern verb "bare" (="open to view")? or "carry" in sense of "carry off"?
UPD: I'm not asking about interpretation of this particular New Testament text, but about how this archaic form of verb "bear" was used and should be interpreted with direct and first reading.