I found this on the page " word of the day; yom tov" on dictionary.com

"I know it's yom tov, I know he must be celebrating his own seder with his family." (Irwin Wolfe, Goodbye Beaver Lake, 2001)

How is this different from comma splices? I think that comma alone is connecting two independent clauses.

Thanks for reading.

  • 1
    There's no dispensation for yom tov. It's a comma splice, but sometimes authors of fiction take liberties with punctuation to mimic conversation. – deadrat Apr 23 '16 at 7:29
  • This use of comma has been a question to me. Thanks a lot. – ezirou suzu Apr 23 '16 at 7:38
  • Why do people post comments in this forum as opposed to answering the questions directly? – Thomas Jay Rush Apr 24 '16 at 16:06

Certainly a comma splice. "I know..." and "I know..." Two independent clauses joined with a comma. But I agree with previous poster about fiction mimicking speech.

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