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When talking about "No man's land" if the land belongs to no man, then should you use an apostrophe s?

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    It doesn't matter whether it's someone's land or not, that's how the genitive case is formed. That's the way it is. – Centaurus Apr 15 '16 at 23:51
  • Think of it this way: the possessive modifies the possessor, not the possessee – user180089 Jul 15 '16 at 20:01
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Ask yourself the question: Whose land is this? And you would answer with: No man's (i.e. for better understanding: no one's), meaning that it doesn't belong to any man.

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