When talking about "No man's land" if the land belongs to no man, then should you use an apostrophe s?

  • 3
    It doesn't matter whether it's someone's land or not, that's how the genitive case is formed. That's the way it is. – Centaurus Apr 15 '16 at 23:51
  • Think of it this way: the possessive modifies the possessor, not the possessee – user180089 Jul 15 '16 at 20:01

Ask yourself the question: Whose land is this? And you would answer with: No man's (i.e. for better understanding: no one's), meaning that it doesn't belong to any man.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.