Is it possible to use an infinitive as an indirect object?
For example, in the sentence 'I persuaded him to go there,' I guess that 'him' is the direct object and 'to go there' is an indirect object. Is this right?
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No. I'm open to the general idea of a sentential complement being an indirect object, though I can't think of any. But the infinitive after "persuade" does not seem to be a reasonable candidate. It's not associated with "to", but rather with "of" ("He didn't believe the earth was round, but we persuaded him of it"). It doesn't express the idea of a recipient. It's not a noun phrase.
Infinitives are the only type of verbals that can also be used as clauses, which this sentence illustrates. In it, "him to go there" is the infinitive clause, with "him" as the subject of the infinitive. The entire infinitive clause functions as the direct object in the sentence. Subjects of the infinitive can be common/proper nouns or objective (not nominative) case pronouns.