Is the contraction of the term "well have" to "well've" grammatically correct?
For example, can a sentence beginning "I may as well have . . . " be contracted to "I may as well've . . . "?
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Relevant: english.stackexchange.com/q/312686/50044– NVZ ♦Mar 18, 2016 at 9:36
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4"We'll've" perhaps, but definitely not "Well've"!– curiousdanniiMar 18, 2016 at 10:35
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1There is not an "official" contraction for "wheel-uv". If you want to show it contracted (as you might for dialog) you will have to create your own representation.– Hot LicksMar 20, 2016 at 0:18
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(But for "well have" as in "may as well have" (vs "we will have"), "well've" is a perfectly reasonable contraction.)– Hot LicksMar 20, 2016 at 1:47
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Ok, so my poetic line, "but nine years my junior, sis may as well've been a zillion." is good to go grammatically then. Right? Thank you for commenting☺– djhoustonMar 21, 2016 at 7:15
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2 Answers
One may speak like that but it is not an accepted orthographical convention.
There are instances of people using it but it is very informal, essentially just transcription of informal speech.
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Hot Licks gave the following response:(But for "well have" as in "may as well have" (vs "we will have"), "well've" is a perfectly reasonable contraction.) This answer suits my purpose☺Thanks for taking the time to comment. Mar 21, 2016 at 7:22
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Thanks again everyone for taking the time to give me your thoughtful comments☺ Apr 26, 2016 at 2:48
Contractions after adverb such as "well" are not grammatically usual. However, contractions before "will" are acceptable. Example: I will've completed the task is a contraction for "I will have completed the task.
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Hot Licks gave the following response:(But for "well have" as in "may as well have" (vs "we will have"), "well've" is a perfectly reasonable contraction.) This answer suits my purpose☺Thanks for taking the time to comment. Mar 21, 2016 at 7:21