I'd like to know whether the following sentences express the same meaning. Are both of them correct without the "provided with" at the end?

Have the foreigners been provided with the same level of security as the locals have been (provided with) ? Have the foreigners been provided with as much security as the locals have been (provided with) ?

Will these sentences be considered grammatical if I end them with the noun "locals"?

Any help will be appreciated.


Yes, you can end the sentences after "locals".

The sentences mean about the same thing. But there is a difference in connotation. The one with "as much as" tends to emphasize that foreigners do not have less security than the locals. The one with "the same level" merely says that the amounts of security are the same or similar - it does not make the point that foreigners get just as much (security) as locals.

  • Thanks for the clear answer @Drew. So, ending the sentences with "have been" in each of these constructions works fine, right? – S.Khan Mar 13 '16 at 10:40
  • Yes, that's OK too. But you can leave out the "have been" as well. – Drew Mar 13 '16 at 16:13

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