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Agone is defined in dictionaries as an archaic form of "gone" (TFD)

but according to Etymonline the term is still used as a dialectal variant:

Ago:

  • ago (adj.) early 14c., shortened form of Old English agan, agone "departed, passed away," past participle of an obsolete verb ago "to go forth," formed from a- "away" Agone remains a dialectal variant.

I presume that it refers to some regional dialect in the UK.

Questions:

  1. Is the term commonly used within the UK? Which region of Great Britain is one most likely to come across this term?

  2. Is agone heard or used outside the UK?

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  • As far as American English usage, no. If it is used here, it's extremely uncommon.
    – user156962
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 8:09
  • Agone, something that has gone by, has become ago, as in ten years ago, which actually means ten years are agone, have passed by since now.
    – rogermue
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 8:20
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    Well change the title, that is what I understood by the tags, and your questioning about it being used in the UK or outside. The question was unclear. I think Etymonline made a mistake, the term is simply archaic, I've never heard anyone say agone aloud. You read it in poetry, and maybe in Victorian novels. Why are you curious about this word? What made you look it up? I'd add some context to the question. EDIT: The just in the title is asking whether it is true or not.
    – Mari-Lou A
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 12:47
  • Etymonline often "copies" directly the OED, it could well be that Oxford entry has not been updated in a long time... maybe it was current at the time of printing.
    – Mari-Lou A
    Commented Feb 18, 2016 at 10:55
  • @Mari-LouA - Could be, but it could also be that in some regions of the UK it has remained just as a dialectal expression...I hoped for some local confirmation.
    – user66974
    Commented Feb 18, 2016 at 10:58

1 Answer 1

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Yes. While never very common, and slightly more used in British English than American English "Agone" hit its peak around 1900. It is still used a bit today.

Reference;
https://books.google.com/ngrams/

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  • My question actually is about where this "dialectal variance" is , if it still is, used.
    – user66974
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 10:36
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    Could you edit your question to clarify that? The question title does not mention "where" - it asks "if", and this is a reasonable answer to that. Even the body of your question doesn't explicitly ask "where", so I can see why @Bookeater interpreted it as written.
    – RJHunter
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 11:05
  • @RJHunter - in the body, where I ask the questions, it is clearly specified what I am asking.
    – user66974
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 11:21
  • Sorry Josh61, evidence points at no particular location. This of course does not disprove there is none. I reasoned part of the answer is better than none.
    – Bookeater
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 11:22
  • @Bookeater - ok thanks, my impression is that if it is still used, it is probably more in the spoken language rather than in writing. So probably some "local" user might help.
    – user66974
    Commented Feb 14, 2016 at 11:24

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