I chanced on the following explanation on Aug. 5 2018, 2 years and 5 months after I initially posted this. Anyone have anything to add to or buttress it?
McWhorter, J. PhD Linguistics (Stanford). The Language Hoax (2016). pp. 123-124.
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Thank you for including your conjecture so that we can respond to it. I think the derivation is probably mainly from "vigor." A vigorous and strong person can move more quickly than a weak person. We can compare the development of "quick" (which originally meant "alive" or "lively") and "speed" (which originally meant "success" or "prosperity.")– herissonFeb 14, 2016 at 3:48
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http://www.etymonline.com– JimFeb 14, 2016 at 4:03
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@sumelic +1. Thanks. You are welcome; at least I managed to conjecture this time.– user50720Feb 14, 2016 at 4:07
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1 Answer
The origin of fast meaning quickly, rapidly etc. was already present in OE and appears to derive from a Scandinavian usage:
The meaning "quickly, swiftly, rapidly" was perhaps in Old English, certainly by c. 1200, probably from or developed under influence of Old Norse fast "firmly, fast."
This sense developed, apparently in Scandinavian, from that of "firmly, strongly, vigorously" (to run hard means the same as to run fast; also compare fast asleep, also compare Old Norse drekka fast "to drink hard," telja fast "to give (someone) a severe lesson").
Or perhaps from the notion of a runner who "sticks" close to whatever he is chasing (compare Old Danish fast "much, swiftly, at once, near to, almost," and sense evolution of German fix "fast, fixed; fast, quick, nimble," from Latin fixus).
(Etymonline)
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That would make sense. "Fast" as in "fasting" or "abstaining from food" also existed in pre-12th century OE, and compliments the "firm" or "stoutly" definition. The two words coexisted instead of being supplanted.– VogieFeb 25, 2016 at 18:21