1

Should this question use the definite article before "media"?

  1. Does the media influence us?
  2. Does media influence us?

Are these both OK? I have seen both being used.

1

"Media" is the plural of "medium," so technically, the question should read, "Do the media influence us?" However, "the media" have become something of a cultural monolith, so I reluctantly accept the singular use when described in this way.

"Do media (television, radio, Internet, billboards, etc.) influence us?" Yes, they do.

"Does the media influence us?" Yes, "it" does.

0

Media isn't a proper noun, so it's not capitalized unless it's in a special context. Such special cases could be

  • it's defined, as in a legal document, to reference a specific group

  • the capital M is being used to emphasize/deify the media in a rhetorical paper.

  • I wanted to know the difference between THE Media & Media. thnx – Scott. F Jan 31 '16 at 14:33
-1

Neither are correct."Influence" is a possessive noun, and works as a verb transitvely, when a preposition is conjugated between a pronoun such as the personal "us": "influence on/over us" works, but not for this question phrasing without "have/having", which indicates possession.

So, instead we could say: "Does the media have influence on/over us?"

  • Why is this downvoted? – John Jan 31 '16 at 17:43
  • 1
    Hi, John, I think your answer is not right. Influence is never a possessive noun and to influence is a transitive verb which can take a direct object as explained by @Mark Hubbard. Please make sure that you take the tour and visit our help center for additional guidance. – user140086 Feb 1 '16 at 6:26

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