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This question already has an answer here:

So I know that the following sentence is correct: "Had I known about that, I wouldn't have talked to her."

However is this one correct too? "I wouldn't have talked to her had I known about that."

Edit: I specifically mean using the inverted form in the second part of the sentence. I spoke to my English teacher about this and she insisted that the inversion can only be used at the start of the conditional sentence. That's where my question comes from.

marked as duplicate by tchrist Nov 30 '16 at 13:53

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Either version is correct, and they both have the same meaning. The only difference is on the emphasis that you are putting on the two halves.

You can test this by putting an explicit "if" without the inversion:

  • I wouldn't have talked to her if I had known about that
  • If I had known about that I wouldn't have talked to her

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