The title pretty much summarizes my question. For example, in the following sentence

She has developed an accent while living overseas, which as of late(ly) became more pronounced.

I usually hear people say either as of recently or as of late, and one of those is bound to be grammatically incorrect. Or is it?


"Lately" and "as of late" are synonyms. You would not combine them in the form "as of lately". It's worth remembering that "as of late" is a formulaic construction that doesn't allow just any old adverb of time to be substituted. As of now, as of then, as of six o'clock — all these are acceptable time expressions.

As for usage, I don't like to go to the NGrams viewer, but it definitely shows that "as of lately" flatlines in comparison to "as of late".

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  • Nah...keep going to the NGrams viewer! I love that thing. – T.E.D. Jun 14 '11 at 17:44
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    You wouldn't combine them into "as of lately"? Why not? We've already corrupted "of late" and "as of _____" by combining them senselessly, what's another corruption amongst friends? – Atario Apr 10 '15 at 22:50

Neither. I can find no reputable dictionary that accepts "as of late." The expression you want is "of late," meaning recently or lately.

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There is "of late" and there is "as of [specific time]". *"As of late" is an uneducated muddling of the two.

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"as of late" is a perfectly valid expression. "of late" does not exist on its own since "as of" is a bound expression itself. "as of lately" is, as has been told already, redundant since "as of late" means "lately". you would think that if "as of late" is valid and also "lately" and "recently" are synonymous, that the use of "as of recent" would be equal to "as of late" but it seems, it is not.

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    "of late" does exist. – Em1 Aug 1 '14 at 11:38

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