I was watching TV Series and I found an interesting sentence that I can't understand.

A simple scene between two lovers and one of them is really jealous. The sentence was:

I would have them of no concern to the one that holds my heart.

I understand the phrase "to be of no concern", but usually I can see it in sentences like: "It's of no concern to me", "Your problems are of no concern to your boss". But the problem with questioned sentence is that there is "I" at the beginning and "the one..." at the end, after "to". It seems like two subjects and I just don't know for who "they" are of no concern.

Of course I can guess the meaning but I would really like to know something more about this structure.

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    – user140086
    Commented Jan 2, 2016 at 2:49

1 Answer 1


That's disgusting. It's pseudo-stylized nonsense trying inexpertly to imitate archaic speech.

It means (sort of) that the one the speaker loves should not concern himself (or herself, whichever the case may be) with whoever is bothering him (or her). The speaker promises to take care of whatever problems they might cause the concerned party.

Shakespeare, O. Henry, G.B. Shaw, and Douglas Adams are a far better guide to good elegant English than this nonsense.

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