In English, can you use a present tense since-clause to mark off a period that starts at some time in the past and continues to and includes the present?
Unfortunately, my paradigm of the clause in question is a German seit clause. Consider, for example, a widow speaking of her living arrangements since her husband's death.
(D) Seit er tot ist, lebe ich allein.
(E1) Since he died, I have lived alone.
It seems to me that D has two clauses which are in present tense and imperfective (present) aspect while E1 has a since-clause in past tense and perfective (aorist) aspect and a main clause in present perfect tense and resultative aspect. (If any of this is wrong, please feel free to point out.)
The kind of since-clause I have in mind would have the same meaning (i.e. a period of time, not e.g. a cause) as that in E1, but go as follows:
(E2) Since he is dead, I have lived alone.
The question is not confined to present day English. An example from any historical period of a since or other subordinate clause in which a verb in present tense and imperfect aspect marks off a time period that continues to the present will do.
I want to add the following as forming a (sort of) continuum from (E2).
(E3) Since he is gone, I have lived in the house.
(E4) Since he has gone, I have lived in the house.
(E5) Since he has lived in the house, I have kept out of it.
E4 and E5 seem to have the same tense and aspect in both clauses (be they present perfect and resultative, or otherwise) and sound acceptable to me.
The since-clause in E3, it seems, can be assimilated either to that in E2 or that in E4 and E5. E3 sounds strange to me or at any rate not as likely in today's speech as "since he's been gone" or "went away."
Anyway, any historical or literary precedent for the seit-like usage of since in English is what I am looking for.