During most the first millennium CE, North and West Germanic languages were written in runic alphabets. Gradually, each language shifted from the runic alphabet to the Latin alphabet. The people who adapted the Latin alphabet for use with a new language chose which letters to align with which sounds. For the phoneme /k/, the Latin alphabet offered two choices: C and K. In most cases K was chosen, and to this day German, Dutch, and the Scandinavian languages make very sparing use of C, except in digraphs like CH. But for Old English, they opted for C, and in fact K is not even included in the Old English Latin alphabet. Why the difference?


After some answers and a bit more research, it is clear that Old English used C, following the practice of the Insular Celtic languages, which followed the practice of Latin. So the question becomes: Why did the other Germanic languages use K? Why did they adopt the Latin alphabet but not the Latin practice of using C?


After some more research, it seems that the most likely answer is the time in which these languages adopted the Latin alphabet, specifically, before or after the palatalization of /k/ and /g/ in Vulgar Latin. When the Celtic scribes learned the Latin alphabet, it was from Romans, so they based their letter choices on Latin. Later, in the Romance languages derived from Vulgar Latin, C could refer to either /k/ or a palatalized version like /tʃ/, while K was unchanged. Since these languages, such as Old French, were widespread at the time, the people adapting the Latin alphabet for continental Germanic languages saw C as an unneeded complexity and opted for the simpler option, K.

This is speculation on my part so if anybody has more definite information, it would be appreciated.

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    Maybe because England was part of the Roman empire; Germany was not. – Peter Shor Dec 8 '15 at 23:53
  • Note that dictionaries and the like for Old English or Old High German give normalized forms, which may mask variation. I know older texts from Germany sometimes used C more broadly (e.g. OHG tac = Modern German Tag); maybe this was also the case for Old English. – herisson Dec 8 '15 at 23:58
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    Early OE writing was adapted from the practice of Irish and British clerics, who made very sparing use of K (as did Latin). It wasn't until the conquest put Norman and Norman-trained writers in the saddle that K came to be widely used. – StoneyB on hiatus Dec 9 '15 at 0:06
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    Regarding the new direction of the question: it may also be useful to compare the situation in most Slavic languages and other languages near them, where /k/ typically is represented by "k" and "c" is used for /ts/. – herisson Jan 1 '16 at 19:42
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    Actually, perhaps with the edits, this question would be more suited to the Linguistics SE? – herisson Jan 1 '16 at 19:47
  • *The letter K comes from the Greek letter Κ (kappa), which was taken from the Semitic kap, the symbol for an open hand.' This, in turn, was likely adapted by Semites who had lived in Egypt from the hieroglyph for "hand" representing D in the Egyptian word for hand, d-r-t. The Semites evidently assigned it the sound value /k/ instead, because their word for hand started with that sound.

  • In the earliest Latin inscriptions, the letters C, K and Q were all used to represent the sounds /k/ and /g/ (which were not differentiated in writing). Of these, Q was used to represent /k/ or /g/ before a rounded vowel, K before /a/, and C elsewhere. Later, the use of C and its variant G replaced most usages of K and Q. K survived only in a few fossilized forms such as Kalendae, "the calends".

  • When Greek words were taken into Latin, the Kappa was transliterated as a C. Loanwords from other alphabets with the sound /k/ were also transliterated with C. Hence, the Romance languages generally use C and have K only in later loanwords from other language groups.

  • The Celtic languages also tended to use C instead of K, and this influence carried over into Old English.


| improve this answer | |
  • Were the Celtic languages written with the Latin alphabet before Old English was? – Sam Kauffman Dec 9 '15 at 14:27
  • ... so 'C' is not a tilted gamma, but a stemless kappa. 'G' is the stemless kappa with a small gamma grafted on, and 'K' is the old kappa with the stem intact. Is that right? – AmI Dec 9 '15 at 20:29
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    @Aml This answer doesn't discuss the origin of C and G. According to Wikipedia, C is derived from the Greek gamma, and G is an invented variant of C, created to distinguish the Latin sounds /k/ and /ɡ/, which were not distinct in Etruscan. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/C – Sam Kauffman Dec 9 '15 at 20:43
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    @Sam: the Roman presence in Britain dates to AD 43. The Anglo-Saxons (who brought Old English) didn't invade Britain until 400 years later. There was no pre-Roman Celtic writing in Britain, and it appears that the first Celtic inscriptions may be in the Latin alphabet. – Peter Shor Dec 9 '15 at 23:11

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