1

A: Christine polley is well. You have an affidavit from three independent psychiatrists who evaluated her.

B: Likely made her sign waivers as soon as you paid them.

From Boston Legal Season 1 Episode 2

What does "made her sign waivers" mean in this dialogue or context?

I know "make one sign waivers" mean make one sign to abdicate his or her right, but I'm not sure how it make senses in this conversation.

I guess B thinks there is a give and take between psychiatrists and the lawyer who defends Christine polley, but I'm not sure how it is.

  • You're right, it doesn't make a lot of sense. But then it's pretend lawyer talk. – Hot Licks Nov 15 '15 at 10:41
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    My sense is that he's saying (They) made her sign waivers as soon as you paid them. Once the psychiatrists had received payment, and before they had rendered their opinions, they imposed this additional demand, to be held harmless if events should prove their professional opinions to have been incorrect. – TRomano Nov 15 '15 at 11:22
  • jaapl.org/content/35/2/200.full -- discusses several ways the forensic mental health professional may be held liable. – TRomano Nov 15 '15 at 11:29
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The context you provided is not sufficient to answer your question, but based on the context:

  1. A is trying to free her as she is not mentally ill and he has an affidavit to prove it.

  2. A hired independent psychiatrists to evaluate her mental health by paying some money for evaluation and affidavit.

  3. B is being cynical by implying that "A" probably had her sign waivers that state:

she will waive the right to file a lawsuit against those psychiatrists who issued the affidavits if she does something bad after the release. In other words, she will not hold them responsible for any consequences resulting from the issuance of the affidavits.

  1. It could mean that "I know you would not have been able to get the affidavits without having her sign the waivers."

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