This question already has an answer here:
What do we got?
In vernacular American speech, I have heard this structure several times. A search in COCA yields 36 results for "what do we got" and 107 results for "what do you got". This is what Google Ngram Viewer says about the usage of "what do we got" in its American English corpus:
As you see, by the year 2000, authors were using (the ungrammatical) "what do you got" instead of the other two options on one percent of the occasions, which is not negligible, considering the upward trend in the usage and the fact that the Ngram corpus has a bias against colloquial language.
However, in British English "got" (as a present tense, without have) is never used with "do". Searches for "do we got" and "do you got" in BNC give almost no result. On the other hand you occasionally (or more often?) hear British people say "got to (gotta)" (without "have") in declarative sentences.
My questions about this usage are:
- What is its origin?
- Does it belong to a regional dialect or is it evenly distributed over America?
- Should it be recognized as a (non)standard colloquialism?
- Why is it still not used in the UK at all? What is the fundamental difference between I got to go and Do you got to go ?
P.S. Look at the "bump" over the 40s in the first diagram. Either this is supremely strange, or something's wrong with Ngram Viewer.