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I was wondering which is the correct form for expressing this simple concept in a formal way: " my hometown is a good place FOR LIVING IN / TO LIVE ".

Grammatically I would say that "my hometown is a good place for living in" is correct, but I see a lot of people that write "my hometown is a good place to live".

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"My hometown is a good place for living in."

"My hometown is a good place to live".

They are both grammatically correct and it could be argued that the meaning is the same.

For me there is a difference.

"My hometown is a good place for living in." This means that my hometown has good facilities: cinemas, music venues, sports arenas, restaurants etc. The town supports the everyday activities of living.

"My hometown is a good place to live". This could mean the same but to me it means that it is good because it is in a good location or is situated somewhere important. For example:

"My hometown is a good place to live because it is near the university that I want to attend. I'll be able to visit my parents and friends regularly".

  • I think the second sentence should end with "in" as "live" is used as an intransitive verb. – user140086 Nov 1 '15 at 6:29
  • @Rathony, look at the first 8 book titles in this Google Books search -> google.co.uk/… -> Then page down and keep looking. Although your idea has logic, it doesn't accord with actual usage. – chasly from UK Nov 1 '15 at 8:36
  • I always think we have to distinguish English usages used in "book titles" and "headlines" from normal usages in above sentences. I would say "I am living in London" and "I am living London" have diffrent connotations and "London is a better place to live in" and "London is a better place to live" do, too unless they are written in "book titles". – user140086 Nov 1 '15 at 8:53
  • I only mentioned titles because they came first on that list. If you keep scrolling/paging down the list you will eventually see the same idiom occurring in the body text as well. I'm not saying that a sentence cannot end with "place to live in" because that idiom is used occasionally (usually with in a slightly different meaning). However it isn't idiomatic in this particular case. If you want to discuss it further then I think that would have to be a different question as it is off-topic here. P.S. The idiom applies to to other intransitive verbs as well. – chasly from UK Nov 1 '15 at 9:05
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    I have just posted it. Please take a look to see if there is any misleading part. Your comment and edition are welcome. – user140086 Nov 1 '15 at 9:47

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