1

I was having a chat to my girlfriend when something came up and I said

"Speaking of dads, I had a dream where me and yours were going...". Here "me" refers to myself and "yours" to her dad.

She corrected me saying that this was incorrect, however could not quite identify where. Later I said that I should've replaced "me" with "I" and swapped the order around. However, this still felt clumsy and she insisted that was still incorrect.

What is a good, conversational, way that this might be said? Furthermore, are there any correct uses of "me and yours" , idiomatic or otherwise?

  • 1
    I think it is best to ask your girlfriend. I don't call my dad "me". What is your's? – user140086 Oct 26 '15 at 13:25
  • 4
    ... where your dad and I were going ... – bib Oct 26 '15 at 13:25
  • 2
    If you dropped the "... and yours", what pronoun would you use? It doesn't change just because you have another element. – Daniel Roseman Oct 26 '15 at 13:27
  • I know that if I were talking about something else I might say "my dad and yours". As I am not talking about "my dad", I am talking about "me", the substitution between the two felt natural. – Crazometer Oct 26 '15 at 13:34
  • Not everything that's grammatical is elegant. Your sentence seem to be fine. – Araucaria - Not here any more. Oct 26 '15 at 14:16
1

I had a dream where me and your's were going...

It still feels clumsy, because your omission of "dad" adds unnecessary implications.

Let's simplify first, then add onto it again:

I had a dream where I was going...
I had a dream where me was going...

Clearly, the first one is correct. You need to use "I", not "me" because it is the subject of the second clause.

But the further confusion stems from "me and yours". You mean that you and her dad are the subjects, but because you omit the "dad" from "yours", you imply that it was also your dad instead of you.

"My dad and your dad." can change into "My dad and yours". The second "dad" can be omitted because the first "dad" reference is already there. Without that prior reference, omitting "dad" only leads to unintended implications.

It seems best to avoid that implication as it only makes an already loaded phrasing much more prone to be misunderstood.

And since we're reworking anyway, let's flip it to "your dad and I" because of politeness.

I had a dream where your dad and I were going...

Edit

I had a dream where me and your dad were going...

Would be the way I expect to hear it when spoken, but isn't grammatically correct. As you can see from this example though, even by only removing the "dad" omission, you solve most of the confusing language problem.

Edit 2

If you are Irish, the possessive "my" is often pronounced as "me". In case you are Irish, I would interpret the following:

Speaking of dads, I had a dream where me and yours were going...

as the Irish equivalent of

Speaking of dads, I had a dream where [mine] and [yours] were going...

Which would also be correct (that is to say, accepted informally), assuming it's about both your dads, not you and her dad.

  • Thanks for going into that. At the time I thought the use of 'me' was deft in that it removed the amibiguity you are talking about (whether I meant myself or my dad), but it seems to have been a poor choice overall. – Crazometer Oct 26 '15 at 13:56
  • The usage of "me" here (like in my edit) seems to be accepted in informal speech. It's the omission of "dad" that made it confusing. Also, if you happen to be Irish, I would interpret "me and yours" to be an equivalent of "mine and yours" due to the Irish dialect possessive ("me dad" ). So if spoken by an Irishman, "me and yours" would have been equivalent to "my dad and your dad". – Flater Oct 26 '15 at 13:59

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.