Are both versions gramatically correct?:
"The opposition between good and evil no longer exists."
"The opposition between good and evil does no longer exist."
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9
Yes, these are both correct, and have the same meaning. However, your second example doesn’t sound very natural; normally, we use do in English to show emphasis, in the affirmative:
— Does the opposition between good and evil exist any longer?
— It does still exist!
If you want to add emphasis to “no longer”, you can phrase it negatively, with “any longer”.
The opposition between good and evil doesn’t exist any longer.
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The opposition between good and evil no longer exists. [normal]
The above is the normal way of saying it.
The opposition between good and evil does no longer exist. [unidiomatic]
Strictly speaking the above is grammatically possible but no-one would ever say it.
The opposition between good and evil exists no longer. [dramatic]
That sounds overdramatic as though you are making a speech.
If you want to use 'to do' then you should say:
The opposition between good and evil does not exist any longer. [emphatic]
answered Oct 15 '15 at 20:25
