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How is 'frappé' correctly pronounced? I know that it is from French origin and I used to pronounce it \fra-ˈpā\ (as I've seen on Merriam-Webster). But when my classmates heard me, they corrected me and said it is a one-syllable word without the long a sound. I also hear the local celebrities and other people ordering frappés without the long a. I am from an English-speaking Asian country.

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    It's presumably like the fact that you'll hear some Brits drop the final syllable from cafe (small restaurant). It's not exactly "wrong", but generally speaking such "premature Anglicization" would be seen as a sign of a poor educational background. Oct 10, 2015 at 12:10
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    In general, if you see an accent mark above a vowel (especially a terminal vowel), that vowel is pronounced.
    – Hot Licks
    Oct 10, 2015 at 12:12
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    If you're in New England, and you order one of these (most of the country calls it a "milkshake") it's pronounced frap with one syllable. If it's a cooking term, it's pronounced with two syllables. Oct 10, 2015 at 12:37
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    @Edwin: in New England, the milkshake drink is spelled frappe with no accent. (And it always contains ice cream, despite the ODO's slightly confusing definition.) Oct 10, 2015 at 12:41
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    @Isabel Archer: you haven't gone to the right restaurants near Boston, then. See this pronunciation guide. May 27, 2020 at 1:23

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Frappé is pronounced fruh-pay, if it's a frozen, fruity, sherbet-like thing, or a liqueur poured over shaved ice.

If it's a milkshake thing, it's frappe (note the absence of the accent mark). And then it rhymes with clap.

Presumably that's the reason for some confusion.

Source: http://www.thefreedictionary.com/frapp%C3%A9

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    It should be noted that "frappe" in the second sense is a regional thing -- throughout most of the US no one would know what you meant if you asked for a "frap" instead of a "milkshake". To my recollection, the term is only used (in the US) in some parts of New England.
    – Hot Licks
    Oct 10, 2015 at 12:26
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    What @Hot Licks said. I wouldn't go so far as to say everyone in Rhode Island & Southeastern Massachusetts is "uneducated", but copying that non-standard regional pronunciation elsewhere would be likely to be seen as slightly "peculiar", if not downright ignorant. Oct 10, 2015 at 14:11

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