I know the meaning of the sentence and the grammar that is applied here, but it just doesn't seem right to me. I would leave "more" out. Am I right or is that an acceptable thing to do informal speech?

Here it is in context:

The two of them stumbled and fell onto the walkway, Mark on top.

“Kid,” Alec said. “I’ve been closer to you more today than I’d hoped to be in a lifetime.”

Thank you in advance!

  • 1
    You're quite right in thinking it's a bad construction. Syntactically there's no difference between the cited example and We're more closer than ever - which is complete garbage. – FumbleFingers Oct 6 '15 at 17:58
  • I took this sentence from american novel. For all i know it mimics an every day conversation, and I guess it shouldn't sound that weird for a native speaker, it's been written by an american novelist after all. – Gábor Kiss Oct 6 '15 at 18:26
  • I'd leave the more out, or swap the order of more and today. – Wayfaring Stranger Oct 6 '15 at 19:35
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    @Gábor: If you'd give us a link to the full context, it might be possible to establish whether the writer himself is "incompetent", or if he's simply portraying a "not-very-articulate" (fictional) character. Because of the word order, even a native speaker might not notice the "doubling-up" of comparatives - most people make lots of minor errors in speech anyway. And although I can't see it myself, someone might want to excuse it on the grounds that closer refers to "...than normal" whereas more refers to "...than all previous periods of closeness added together". – FumbleFingers Oct 6 '15 at 20:12
  • Thank you, your explanation makes a lot of sense. It's a book from James Dashner, the writer of the maze runner series. Here's the link to that part. – Gábor Kiss Oct 6 '15 at 20:46

I don't know if I'd hoped is right or not, but I would prefer using "I would have hoped" in its place.

  • I was thinking about that, too. Why would writer write something like that, then? – Gábor Kiss Oct 6 '15 at 18:13

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