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I wonder if it is grammatically fine to use two have/has been in the same sentence?

Example:

After you have been informed that your paper has been accepted…

  • 1
    Those perfects are passive, not continuous. And they're fine. – StoneyB on hiatus Oct 5 '15 at 17:10
  • @Rathony. How does it not look fine? And what is the relevance of one being before the other? It looks fine to me. – Colin Fine Oct 5 '15 at 19:02
  • Without the main clause that this clause is subordinate to, there's not enough present context to see why one might prefer perfect to past. All variants in After [having been/you have been/you were] informed that your paper [is/was/has been/had been] accepted, ... are grammatical and meaningful, but they don't always match up with the clause they modify. – John Lawler Oct 5 '15 at 19:17
  • It's not a sentence yet. It's just a subordinate clause; and either the past tense or the perfect construction -- or both -- can be used, depending. – John Lawler Oct 5 '15 at 19:19
  • But it's easier to understand the sentence with after; it's the only actual reference to relative time in the clause. There are rules for changing after clauses into participles, but they're much less clear. – John Lawler Oct 5 '15 at 19:28
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The sentence is grammatically fine. There could be two "has/ have been" in a sentence. Grammar does not prohibit this.

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These clauses are in passivised present perfect. Without the main clause, it cannot be decisively told whether the sentence is correct or not. However from the '...' we may safely presume that that there is a satisfactory princpal clause that brings this sentence to its logical ending.

It is often hotly argued against too much use of passive but uptill now those two subordinate adverb and noun clauses in passive present perfect are fine provided...!!

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