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This question already has an answer here:

I understand contractions as just a means of merging two words into one, with some added punctuation, but there's some cases where I feel I'm grammatically correct, but using them incorrectly.

For example, "Have you ever been to the market downtown? I know I've."

Or, "Will you guys be coming with us?" ... "Yes we'll."

And, "If that won't work, what'll?"

Is there some grammar rule against doing this? Is there a reason why this isn't common? What makes doing this feel awkward?

marked as duplicate by Hellion, tchrist, Elian, Kristina Lopez, Edwin Ashworth Oct 3 '15 at 2:05

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

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    I have a feeling I've answered this recently, but I can't find it. So, yes, there is a rule -- or a set of rules -- that effectively forbids subject-auxiliary contractions at the end of a sentence. Auxiliaries, to be contracted or deleted, must be followed by their main verb; if that has been deleted (by, for example, conjunction reduction, as here), then contraction can't occur. This is because the clause at the end has to have a stressed predicate, if it has a predicate at all, and you can't stress a subject-verb contraction. This is not true, for instance, of auxiliary-negative contractions – John Lawler Oct 2 '15 at 21:00
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    @Hellion I disagree that this is a duplicate of the discussion you linked, because it specifically deals with contractions at the end of sentences, rather than simply contracting the main verb in a sentence. – Holly Oct 2 '15 at 21:21
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    W.S.Gilbert did it for comic effect in Ruddigore: Oh innocent, honest, though pure: / If I had been virtuous I'm sure / I'd have been as nice-looking as you're. / You are very nice-looking indeed. / Oh innocents, listen in time! / Avoid an existence of crime! / Or you'll be as ugly as I'm / And now, if you please, we'll proceed. – Colin Fine Oct 2 '15 at 21:55
  • Voting to close. This has already been asked {When can one use a contraction at the end of a sentence? [duplicate] } // To which closure the OP reasonably responds: << 'My question isn't a dupe, but the top answer to your linked question answers my question. Shall I delete?' – Fixee Jun 29 '12 >> So this has also already been answered. //// We need a better protocol for closing questions which are well answered in near-duplicates. – Edwin Ashworth Oct 3 '15 at 2:05
  • WTH??? There are so many similar questions to this one and it gets linked to a question that's completely totally and utterly unrelated. Completely unbelievable. How are we meant to get good questions round here when we behave like this. It's crazy. AAAAaaaaaaaaaaaaarrrrrrrrrrrrrrgggggggghhhhhh. – Araucaria Oct 3 '15 at 20:57
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You cannot end a sentence with a pronoun-verb contraction.

From LiveMocha:

...you CANNOT end a sentence with contraction if it is a Type 1 (Pronoun-Verb). Not in formal English, not in informal English – never! In this case, you must write out the entire verb that follows the pronoun. So take a look at the contraction at the end of your sentence. Does it contain a pronoun? If it does, then break it up into its two original words.

From English expert Eugene Mohr:

[In written English,] No contraction takes place if the form of be, will, or have occupies the final position.

You may also be interested in the following discussions/posts:

Is there some rule against ending a sentence with the contraction “it's”?

Ending a sentence with a contraction

Yes, I'm.

Why does it sound so weird to end a sentence with a contraction?

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