Russian, I believe, has no definite or indefinite article. How did it develop in Latin languages, particularly English? Would English be much poorer without it?

  • Nice question! Many languages have articles, some are prepended (Scandinavian languages, Romanian, Bulgarian, Albanian). Many other languages didn't have them at all. In fact Latin didn't have them but all the modern romance have them! May 28 '11 at 15:19
  • 1
    I don't think this should have been closed since at least the part asking about the development of the English words a, and, and the is a valid and interesting question. Maybe the OP can salvage it with an edit? May 28 '11 at 15:32
  • I am closing this in its current form. The "would English be much poorer" part is subjective and argumentative, and the rest is not specific enough to English. You might be interested in supporting the Linguistics proposal. Also, do note that we already have a question about the etymology of “the”. And finally, "Latin languages, particularly English" — ಠ_ಠ.
    – RegDwigнt
    May 28 '11 at 15:37