In my native language we often use complex sentences expressions like this: "I wouldn't have gone there if you wouldn't have told me to go there".

Now when I say that in English it feel a bit verbose and weird, and it's very rare to hear that from native speakers.

Is this a completely wrong form?

The other thing is, despite I've been practicing English since long now, there is in my brain almost no trace of what I would commonly hear in place of that (or only a weak trace, possibly having something to do with the use of the Gerund [ing] somewhere ☻, but I don't know really), the reason being, in my opinion, how the English commonly spoken form requires, in this case, a totally different brain-wiring, compared to the language I speak natively.

This is when languages become hard. And this is where I can't but ask for your help :)

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    Except in a few special cases, English doesn't use would after conjunctions like if and when. – Anonym Sep 16 '15 at 2:48
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    The past tense can represent an unreal or potential circumstance in the present (e.g. I wouldn't go there if you didn't tell me to) and the pluperfect can represent such a circumstance in the past (e.g. I wouldn't have gone there if you hadn't told me to.) - your second sentence seems to confuse the two constructions. – Anonym Sep 16 '15 at 2:54
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    The simple past (didn't tell) refers to a past event, whereas the pluperfect (hadn't told) refers to a past event occurring before another past event. – Anonym Sep 16 '15 at 2:59
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    I wouldn't know; these are all just the intuitions of an educated native speaker. – Anonym Sep 16 '15 at 3:17
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