"I'm afraid anything that involves language learning has always defeated me."
I found this sentence in a Cambridge dictionary, and I wonder that why this sentence has 3 verbs but just 1 conjunction. Especially "has always defeated me": Why is it that the word "has" can be after "language learning" even though the subordinate clause has the verb "involve"?
I'm very puzzled and apologize for may bad writing. I have just learned English grammar.