''And they don't seek pleasure either.''

''And they don't seek pleasure neither.''

Which of this sentences is correct? Or are both of them incorrect and I should retort with something like:

''Nor do they seek pleasure.''


The first is correct.

The second is a good example of a double negative, where instead of resulting in a positive statement, results in a nonsensical sentence

The last example however, is preferable, as it presents the concept more concisely.

  • 1
    No English speaker misunderstands or is confused by the second, so it is simply false to claim that it results in either a positive or a nonsensical sentence. – Colin Fine Sep 10 '15 at 22:39
  • 1
    It's called negative concordance, and it's a feature of many languages and many dialects of English. – Robusto Sep 10 '15 at 23:02

The first is standard English. The second is common in various colloquial Englishes. The third is somewhat literary.

  • Is the second really common? I have no trouble with double negatives, but this one sounds unnatural to me without a negator on pleasure as well (“They don't seek no pleasure neither”). – Janus Bahs Jacquet Sep 10 '15 at 22:40
  • Well, actually I think seek (and maybe pleasure too) is rather too literary for this construction; but They aren't looking for fun neither seems natural in that variety to me. – Colin Fine Sep 10 '15 at 22:46

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