I was surprised of not seeing the verb Relearn in any of the online dictionaries I use the most: Cambridge, Oxford and MacMillan.

Is it formally correct to use it?

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    It's definitely in the online Oxford Dictionary: oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/relearn – SomethingDark Sep 1 '15 at 12:04
  • Thank you very much! Sorry for the question. I've realised I am using the wrong dictionary: the Oxford Learner's Dictionary oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com. I am going to change it now! – viery365 Sep 1 '15 at 12:08
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    @viery365: In the case of regularly-formed derivatives like wipe => rewipe, you won't necessarily find them in dictionaries anyway (that one isn't even in the full OED, for example). But that doesn't mean they're not valid words. – FumbleFingers Sep 1 '15 at 12:30
  • @FumbleFingers Thank you! My opinion on this matter is that the dictionaries should have entries for those words (at least the online versions) unless all verbs have the possibility of a regularly-formed derivative re- (which I still do not know). At least, an entry within the meaning of the word giving the info about the re- derivative. – viery365 Sep 1 '15 at 15:27
  • That's an interesting point about whether all verbs have the possibility of a regularly-formed derivative. My first thought was they do - assuming there's some context (no matter how contrived) where such a verb could be semantically credible. But on reflection I don't think there would be any support for rebe, rehave, rego etc. Since no-one has yet answered your question here (presumably because it's somewhat trivial - of course relearn would be "valid", regardless of whether you found it in your dictionary), perhaps you might consider editing it... – FumbleFingers Sep 2 '15 at 17:07

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